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I am an expert in Latin Language and Literature and I'll be glad to answer any questions concerning this matter.


Ph.D. Cand. in Classical Languages. Conversant with all forms of the language: classical, mediaeval, and modern.

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2014-12-16 grammar:

Dear Robert,    1.In “…..ceterisque operis et officiis erit id, quod violatum videbitur,compensandum “  (Cicero, De Officiis, II. 68)the word  “violatum” is a past participle working as an attributive

2014-12-13 grammar:

Dear Robert,    1.In “…Calpurnius…..arbitrum illum adegit (Cicero, De Officiis, III.66, not II.66)   the perfect tense “adegit”(from “adigo”) means “he compelled”, i.e. Calpurnius…   compelled (adegit)

2014-12-10 grammar:

Dear Robert,    1.The sentence “Posse enim liberalitate uti non spoliantem se patrimonio nimirum est pecuniae fructus maximus..” (Cicero, De Officiis, II.64)literally means:”For (enim) the greatest (maximus)

2014-12-09 Caesar:

Hello,    as I've already said, Caesar uses the perfect tense "consuerunt"( contracted  form of "consueverunt", 3rd person plural, indicative mood, perfect tense of “consuesco”), because  the perfect tense

2014-12-08 Caesar:

Hello,    In "Druides a bello abesse consuerunt neque tributa una cum reliquis pendunt" (Caesar, De Bello Gallico, Liber VI,14,1) meaning :”Druids are accustomed to abstain from war, nor do they pay taxes

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